Not sure if anyone here will be able to help, but I can't seem to find a clear definition of what I'm looking for, and I'm in a tough spot. I'm trying to find out if it can be discrimination before you know for sure that you're pregnant (during that 1st month), and before you've told your boss.The details are complicated so bear with me please.
Situation: I was a Retail Operations Manager, and the Christmas season is our busiest holiday. I found myself exhausted, starving, and experiencing slight cases of dizziness. I thought at first I was just fighting off a bug, because I got a stomach flu (both ends), and then a slight cold a week later. I missed my period completely the week of Christmas, which was odd, but I was still only speculating at this point, because I'm on birth control, and have been for years and didn't take any antibiotics last month. During this time, while I was working as hard as I could, there were some times when I fell short due to exhaustion and what I thought was a stomach bug. One female manager in particular was becoming frustrated with me and calling my DM to report me for anything she thought wasn't 110% correct. She seemed genuine to my face, and I had several discussions with her expressing what I was going through and that I might be pregnant, but that it was still too early to take a test. I was terminated from my position of General Operations Manager last week by my district manager. The reason given was for allegedly using a curse word in an employee only area with a window to the sales floor while frustrated with a computer. I was told that several staff members wrote statements to back up the story. I generally don't curse at all, much less at work, so the thought that I would have said something that would have offended several employees who all curse way more than me to the point where they would have written statements against me is ridiculous. So, I got fired for something that is technically in the code of conduct, but probably would have been an issue in the past 4.5 years that I've worked there if it was going to be an issue at all. However, the person who reported me was making regular calls to my DM to see if anything she said would stick. If she got one other person to write a statement matching hers, that's all they needed, and I could never prove it if they were being untruthful. My DM couldn't know I was pregnant for sure, because I didn't know for sure at the time, so the only information coming from me was maybe. Same for her, but she definitely knew it was a possibility. So, to sum it up. Is it still discrimination if:
1) You and they don't know for sure yet because it's too early?
2) The employee below you is doing the discriminating, but working with your boss to try to get you fired?
3) The reason given for termination isn't based on the pregnancy but possibly conjured up because of it?
4) Can I still prove discrimination if it's just my word against her's?
Any thoughts, comments, and experiences are welcome. Hopefully I've given you some food for thought. Sometimes that first month can roll in like a train, and I started looking simply for proof that women were still protected during that time, but I can't find anything about it. Thanks!